The NCL Radiographer Previous Year Question Paper is one of the best resources to prepare for the NCL Radiographer Trainee 2026 Computer Based Test (CBT). Solving previous year and most-expected questions helps you understand the exam pattern, important topics and the level of difficulty. Below you will find important Radiographer questions with answers to boost your preparation.
Northern Coalfields Limited (NCL) conducts a Computer Based Test (CBT) for the Radiographer Trainee post under its Paramedical Staff recruitment. To score high, candidates must practise previous year question papers along with subject-wise mock questions. This page brings you a handpicked set of NCL Radiographer important questions useful for the 2026 exam.
Why Solve NCL Radiographer Previous Year Question Papers?
- Understand the real exam pattern and marking scheme.
- Identify the most important and repeated topics in Radiography.
- Improve speed and accuracy for the CBT.
- Build confidence by practising exam-level questions.
- Cover both technical (radiography) and general awareness/reasoning sections.
NCL Radiographer Exam Pattern 2026
The CBT for the Radiographer post carries 100 marks and is divided into two sections:
| Section | Subject | Questions | Marks |
|---|---|---|---|
| Section A | Technical / Radiography Subject Knowledge | 70 | 70 |
| Section B | General Knowledge, Reasoning & Aptitude | 30 | 30 |
| Total | — | 100 | 100 |
NCL Radiographer Previous Year Questions with Answers
Practice the following 70 important NCL Radiographer questions below. Click on "Show Answer" under each question to reveal the correct answer and a detailed explanation.
Q1. Which part of body is X-rayed in "Frog position"?
- A) Pelvis
- B) Hip joint
- C) Knee joint
- D) Elbow joint
Show Answer
Right Answer: B) Hip joint
Explanation: The frog-leg lateral (Lauenstein) position is used to image the hip joint and femoral heads/necks, with the thigh abducted and externally rotated. It is commonly used to assess hip pathology, especially in children.
Q2. Which of the following will help in reducing radiation exposure to patients?
1. High KV, low (Milli ampere-seconds) mAs
2. Collimation
3. Filtration
- A) 1 and 2 only
- B) 2 and 3 only
- C) 1 and 3 only
- D) 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Right Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: All three reduce patient dose: high kV with low mAs lowers absorbed dose, collimation limits the irradiated field, and added filtration removes low-energy (soft) photons that only add to skin dose.
Q3. The unit of dose equivalent used to express radiation dose in living tissue
- A) roentgen
- B) rem
- C) rad
- D) erg
Show Answer
Right Answer: B) rem
Explanation: Dose equivalent, which accounts for the biological effect of radiation, is expressed in rem (old unit) or sievert (SI). Roentgen is exposure, rad is absorbed dose, and erg is a unit of energy.
Q4. TLD badge should be worn at
- A) Outside the lead apron stomach position
- B) Inside the lead apron stomach position
- C) The back side at the shoulder position
- D) Outside the lead apron collar position
Show Answer
Right Answer: D) Outside the lead apron collar position
Explanation: When a lead apron is worn (e.g. during fluoroscopy), the personnel monitoring TLD badge is worn at collar level outside the apron to estimate dose to the unshielded head, neck and eyes.
Q5. The common bile duct opens into the
- A) Medial wall of the first part of duodenum
- B) Medial wall of the second part of duodenum
- C) Lateral wall of the second part of duodenum
- D) Medial wall of the third part of duodenum
Show Answer
Right Answer: B) Medial wall of the second part of duodenum
Explanation: The common bile duct, joined by the pancreatic duct, opens at the major duodenal papilla on the medial wall of the second (descending) part of the duodenum.
Q6. The stomach is located primarily within the
- A) Right lower quadrant
- B) Right upper quadrant
- C) Left upper quadrant
- D) Left lower quadrant
Show Answer
Right Answer: C) Left upper quadrant
Explanation: The stomach lies mainly in the left upper quadrant (and epigastric region) of the abdomen, just beneath the left dome of the diaphragm.
Q7. Normally a patient is asked to inhale deeply when having the lungs x-rayed. Which of the following is the BEST reason for that?
- A) More uniform density
- B) Increased contrast
- C) Greater magnification
- D) Greater area of lung structures shown
Show Answer
Right Answer: D) Greater area of lung structures shown
Explanation: Deep inspiration depresses the diaphragm and expands the lungs, so a greater area of the lung field and its structures is demonstrated on the chest radiograph.
Q8. Compression is used during excretory urography in order to accomplish which of the following?
- A) Aiding in the excretion process
- B) Immobilizing the patient
- C) Preventing the patient from breathing during the exposure
- D) Retaining the contrast medium in the collecting system
Show Answer
Right Answer: D) Retaining the contrast medium in the collecting system
Explanation: Ureteric compression during excretory urography (IVU/IVP) retains contrast within the pelvicalyceal collecting system, giving better filling and visualisation of the renal pelvis and calyces.
Q9. Which of the following is a radiographic study of the urinary bladder that involves the direct injection of a contrast media through a catheter?
- A) Intravenous pyelogram
- B) Intravenous urogram
- C) Retrograde pyelogram
- D) Cystogram
Show Answer
Right Answer: D) Cystogram
Explanation: A cystogram is direct imaging of the urinary bladder after contrast is instilled through a catheter. A retrograde pyelogram targets the ureters and renal pelvis instead.
Q10. The frequencies of Ultrasound used in medical imaging are in the range of:
- A) 1-20 Hz
- B) 1-20 MHz
- C) 10-20 MHz
- D) 10-20 KHz
Show Answer
Right Answer: B) 1-20 MHz
Explanation: Diagnostic medical ultrasound uses high-frequency sound in the range of about 1-20 MHz (commonly 2-18 MHz), well above the audible range.
Q11. What form of energy is used in MRI?
- A) Radio waves
- B) Sound waves
- C) X-rays
- D) Ultraviolet
Show Answer
Right Answer: A) Radio waves
Explanation: MRI uses radiofrequency (radio) waves together with a strong magnetic field to generate images. It does not use ionizing radiation.
Q12. The abdominal aorta bifurcates into Left and Right:
- A) Common iliac arteries
- B) Popliteal arteries
- C) Femoral arteries
- D) Tibial arteries
Show Answer
Right Answer: A) Common iliac arteries
Explanation: The abdominal aorta bifurcates at about the L4 vertebral level into the right and left common iliac arteries.
Q13. Which of the following radiological procedure outlines Spinal cord?
- A) KUB Radiography
- B) Thermography
- C) Myelography
- D) Xeroradiography
Show Answer
Right Answer: C) Myelography
Explanation: Myelography is the contrast study used to outline the spinal cord and the subarachnoid space.
Q14. Unexposed X-ray film is comprised of transparent polyester base coated with an emulsion containing radiation sensitive particle known as:
- A) Silver bromide
- B) Silver iodide
- C) Both A and B
- D) Neither A or B
Show Answer
Right Answer: C) Both A and B
Explanation: The film emulsion contains radiation-sensitive silver halide crystals - predominantly silver bromide (about 90-99%) with a small amount of silver iodide (about 1-10%). Hence both A and B.
Q15. Swimmer's view is used for taking X-Rays of:
- A) Lumbo-sacral spine
- B) Cervico-thoracic junction
- C) Humerus
- D) Coccyx
Show Answer
Right Answer: B) Cervico-thoracic junction
Explanation: The swimmer's (cervicothoracic) lateral view demonstrates the cervicothoracic junction (C7-T1), which is obscured by the shoulders on a routine lateral cervical spine view.
Q16. Waters' view is used for taking X-Rays of:
- A) Base of skull
- B) Mastoid bones
- C) Orbits
- D) Paranasal sinuses
Show Answer
Right Answer: D) Paranasal sinuses
Explanation: The Waters' (occipitomental / parietoacanthial) view best demonstrates the paranasal sinuses, especially the maxillary sinuses, free of petrous bone overlap.
Q17. Apicogram is used for taking X-Rays of:
- A) Base of lung
- B) Apices of lung
- C) Mediastinum
- D) Diaphragm
Show Answer
Right Answer: B) Apices of lung
Explanation: The apico-lordotic (apicogram) view projects the clavicles upward so the apices of the lungs are demonstrated free of bony superimposition.
Q18. Which procedure uses non-ionizing radiation?
- A) Nuclear medical imaging
- B) X-Ray
- C) CT
- D) MRI
Show Answer
Right Answer: D) MRI
Explanation: MRI uses non-ionizing radiofrequency energy with a magnetic field, unlike X-ray, CT and nuclear medicine, which all use ionizing radiation.
Q19. To detect gas-fluid level in abdomen, following X-ray views of abdomen are taken:
- A) AP view
- B) Lateral decubitus view
- C) Erect view
- D) Both B and C
Show Answer
Right Answer: D) Both B and C
Explanation: Air-fluid (gas-fluid) levels require a horizontal X-ray beam, so both the erect and the lateral decubitus abdominal views demonstrate them.
Q20. The most damaging type of radiation is:
- A) Beta rays
- B) X-rays
- C) Alpha rays
- D) Gamma rays
Show Answer
Right Answer: C) Alpha rays
Explanation: Alpha particles have the highest LET and cause the greatest biological damage per interaction when the source is internal, although they have very low penetrating power.
Q21. The following bones participate in the formation of the knee joint: 1. femur 2. tibia 3. patella
- A) 1 and 2 only
- B) 1 and 3 only
- C) 2 and 3 only
- D) 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Right Answer: D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The knee joint is formed by the femur, tibia and patella. The fibula does not take part in the knee joint.
Q22. A patient is usually required to drink barium sulphate suspension in order to demonstrate which of the following structure(s)? 1. pylorus 2. sigmoid 3. duodenum
- A) 1 and 2 only
- B) 1 and 3 only
- C) 2 and 3 only
- D) 3 only
Show Answer
Right Answer: B) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Oral barium sulphate opacifies the upper GI tract - the stomach (pylorus) and duodenum. The sigmoid colon is demonstrated by barium enema, not oral barium.
Q23. The image intensifier's input phosphor is generally composed of:
- A) cesium iodide
- B) zinc cadmium sulphide
- C) gadolinium oxysulphide
- D) calcium tungstate
Show Answer
Right Answer: A) cesium iodide
Explanation: The input phosphor of the image intensifier is made of cesium iodide (CsI), which efficiently converts incident X-rays into light.
Q24. The following statement(s) is (are) accurate with respect to the differences between the male and female bony pelvis: 1. the female pelvic outlet is wider 2. the pubic angle is 90 degrees or fewer in the male 3. the male pelvis is more shallow
- A) 1 only
- B) 1 and 2 only
- C) 2 and 3 only
- D) 1, 2, and 3
Show Answer
Right Answer: B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: In the female the pelvic outlet is wider and the pubic angle is greater than 90 degrees, while in the male it is 90 degrees or less. The male pelvis is deeper (not shallow), so statement 3 is wrong.
Q25. With the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthial projection (Waters method), and the central ray directed through the open mouth, which sinus group is demonstrated through the open mouth?
- A) Frontal
- B) Ethmoid
- C) Maxillary
- D) Sphenoid
Show Answer
Right Answer: D) Sphenoid
Explanation: In the open-mouth Waters (parietoacanthial) method, the central ray passes through the open mouth to project and demonstrate the sphenoid sinuses.
Q26. In which body position would a patient suffering from orthopnea experience the least discomfort?
- A) Fowler
- B) Trendelenburg
- C) Recumbent
- D) Erect
Show Answer
Right Answer: A) Fowler
Explanation: A patient with orthopnea breathes most easily when upright; the Fowler (semi-sitting) position relieves the breathing difficulty the most.
Q27. The four major arteries supplying the brain include the: 1. Brachiocephalic artery 2. Common carotid arteries 3. Vertebral arteries
- A) 1 and 2 only
- B) 1 and 3 only
- C) 2 and 3 only
- D) 1, 2, and 3
Show Answer
Right Answer: C) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: The brain is supplied by four major arteries - the two common (internal) carotid arteries and the two vertebral arteries. The brachiocephalic artery is not counted among the four.
Q28. Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the lateral projection of the thoracic spine? 1. Intervertebral joints 2. Apophyseal joints 3. Intervertebral foramina
- A) 1 only
- B) 1 and 2 only
- C) 1 and 3 only
- D) 2 and 3 only
Show Answer
Right Answer: C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: The lateral thoracic spine demonstrates the intervertebral disc (joint) spaces and the intervertebral foramina. The apophyseal (zygapophyseal) joints require an oblique projection.
Q29. Which of the following conditions is characterized by widening of the intercostal spaces?
- A) Emphysema
- B) Empyema
- C) Atelectasis
- D) Pneumonia
Show Answer
Right Answer: A) Emphysema
Explanation: Emphysema causes hyperinflation (air trapping) of the lungs, which widens the intercostal spaces and flattens the diaphragm.
Q30. For AP view of coccyx the central ray is directed:
- A) 25 degree towards head
- B) 10 degree towards head
- C) 25 degree towards feet
- D) 10 degree towards feet
Show Answer
Right Answer: D) 10 degree towards feet
Explanation: For the AP coccyx, the central ray is angled 10 degrees caudad (towards the feet) to project the coccyx free of superimposition with the pubic bones.
Q31. Typical examples of digital imaging include:
1. MRI
2. CT
3. Pluridirectional Tomography
- A) 1 only
- B) 1 and 2 only
- C) 1 and 3 only
- D) 1, 2, and 3
Show Answer
Right Answer: B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: MRI and CT produce digital images. Pluridirectional (conventional) tomography is an analog film technique, so it is not digital imaging.
Q32. Of the following groups of technical factors, which will produce the greatest radiographic density?
- A) 10 mAs, 74 kV, 44-inches SID
- B) 10 mAs, 74 kV, 36-inches SID
- C) 5 mAs, 85 kV, 48-inches SID
- D) 5 mAs, 85 kV, 40-inches SID
Show Answer
Right Answer: B) 10 mAs, 74 kV, 36-inches SID
Explanation: Radiographic density increases with mAs and kV and decreases with greater SID. Option B combines the higher mAs (10) with the shortest SID (36"), giving the greatest density.
Q33. The energy of ionizing electromagnetic radiations is measured in:
- A) mA
- B) mAs
- C) keV
- D) kV
Show Answer
Right Answer: C) keV
Explanation: The energy of ionizing electromagnetic (X-/gamma) radiation is measured in kiloelectron volts (keV). mA, mAs and kV are tube operating factors, not photon energy.
Q34. A wire mesh is used to test:
- A) Focal spot size
- B) For screen lag
- C) Film-screen contact
- D) Screen speed
Show Answer
Right Answer: C) Film-screen contact
Explanation: The wire-mesh test checks film-screen contact; areas of poor contact appear blurred or unsharp on the test image.
Q35. Which of the following has an effect on distortion?
1. Source-image distance
2. Angulation of the x-ray tube
3. Angulation of the part
- A) 1 only
- B) 1 and 2 only
- C) 2 and 3 only
- D) 1, 2, and 3
Show Answer
Right Answer: D) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation: Distortion (size and shape) is affected by the source-image distance, angulation of the X-ray tube and angulation of the part. Hence all three.
Q36. The term used to describe image density in digital imaging is:
- A) Blackening
- B) Brightness
- C) Gray scale
- D) Resolution
Show Answer
Right Answer: B) Brightness
Explanation: In digital imaging, image density (lightness/darkness) is described by the term brightness, which can be adjusted after image acquisition.
Q37. Compared to a low-ratio grid, a higher-ratio grid could have:
1. Taller lead strips
2. More distance between the lead strips
3. Thicker lead strips
- A) 1 only
- B) 1 and 2 only
- C) 2 and 3 only
- D) 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Right Answer: A) 1 only
Explanation: Grid ratio = height of the lead strips divided by the distance between them. A higher-ratio grid therefore has taller lead strips (and/or narrower interspaces), so statement 1 only is correct.
Q38. Which of the following pathologic conditions would require an increase in exposure factors?
- A) Pneumoperitoneum
- B) Obstructed bowel
- C) Renal colic
- D) Ascites
Show Answer
Right Answer: D) Ascites
Explanation: Ascites is a fluid-filled (additive) condition that increases tissue density, so exposure factors must be increased. The others are destructive/lucent conditions.
Q39. Grid ratio is defined as the relationship between the height of the lead strip and the:
- A) Width of the lead strip
- B) Distance between the lead strips
- C) Number of lead strips per inch
- D) Angle of the lead strip
Show Answer
Right Answer: B) Distance between the lead strips
Explanation: Grid ratio is the ratio of the height of the lead strips to the distance (interspace) between adjacent lead strips.
Q40. Patient dose can be decreased by using:
1. High ratio grids
2. High speed screen and film combination
3. Air-gap technique
- A) 1 only
- B) 1 and 2 only
- C) 1 and 3 only
- D) 1, 2, and 3
Show Answer
Right Answer: See note: technically "2 and 3 only" (not in options)
Explanation: High-speed screen-film combinations and the air-gap technique reduce patient dose, but high-ratio grids INCREASE patient dose. So the technically correct answer is "2 and 3 only", which is not among the given options. (Note: the option set appears to have an error.)
Q41. In order to better visualise joint space in AP view of knee joint the tube is angled 5 to 7 degrees:
- A) Cranially
- B) Caudally
- C) Towards medial side
- D) Towards lateral side
Show Answer
Right Answer: A) Cranially
Explanation: For the AP knee, the central ray is angled about 5-7 degrees cranially (cephalad) in an average patient to open up the knee joint space.
Q42. MCU is:
- A) Micturating Cysto Ureterography
- B) Modified Cysto Urethrogram
- C) Micturating Cysto Urethrography
- D) Micturating Cysto Urinography
Show Answer
Right Answer: C) Micturating Cysto Urethrography
Explanation: MCU stands for Micturating Cysto-Urethrography - a voiding study of the urinary bladder and urethra using contrast medium.
Q43. The term effective dose refers to:
- A) Whole-body dose
- B) Localized organ dose
- C) Genetic effects
- D) Somatic and genetic effects
Show Answer
Right Answer: D) Somatic and genetic effects
Explanation: Effective dose is a tissue-weighted quantity that reflects the overall risk of stochastic effects, i.e. both somatic (cancer) and genetic (hereditary) effects.
Q44. Examples of primary radiation barriers include:
1. X-ray room walls
2. Control booth
3. Lead aprons
- A) 1 only
- B) 1 and 2 only
- C) 2 and 3 only
- D) 1, 2 and 3
Show Answer
Right Answer: A) 1 only
Explanation: A primary barrier is one that the useful (primary) beam can be directed at - i.e. the X-ray room walls/floor. The control booth and lead aprons are secondary barriers.
Q45. When reviewing patient blood chemistry levels, what is considered the normal creatinine range?
- A) 0.6-1.5 mg/100 ml
- B) 4.5-6 mg/100 ml
- C) 8-25 mg/100 ml
- D) up to 50 mg/100 ml
Show Answer
Right Answer: A) 0.6-1.5 mg/100 ml
Explanation: The normal serum creatinine range is roughly 0.6-1.5 mg/100 ml (mg/dL); it is checked before contrast studies to assess renal function.
Q46. In IVP, the first film after contrast injection is:
- A) Nephrogram
- B) Pyelogram
- C) Ureterogram
- D) Venogram
Show Answer
Right Answer: A) Nephrogram
Explanation: The nephrogram is the first/early phase after IV contrast injection in IVP, showing opacification of the renal parenchyma before the pelvicalyceal system fills.
Q47. The number of cervical vertebrae:
- A) 5
- B) 12
- C) 7
- D) 8
Show Answer
Right Answer: C) 7
Explanation: There are 7 cervical vertebrae (C1-C7) in the human vertebral column.
Q48. When X ray beam falls on the body, they are:
- A) Reflected
- B) Absorbed
- C) Transmitted
- D) All of the above happens
Show Answer
Right Answer: D) All of the above happens
Explanation: When the X-ray beam strikes the body, photons are partly absorbed, partly transmitted and partly scattered - so all of the listed interactions occur.
Q49. The value of CT number (in Hounsfield units) is determined primarily by:
- A) Matrix size
- B) Slice thickness
- C) KV
- D) Tissue density
Show Answer
Right Answer: D) Tissue density
Explanation: The CT number (Hounsfield unit) of a voxel is determined chiefly by tissue density - its linear attenuation coefficient relative to water.
Q50. Anode in rotating anode X-ray tube is made of:
- A) Tungsten-Nickel alloy
- B) Tungsten-Rhenium alloy
- C) Nickel-Tin alloy
- D) Tungsten-Aluminum alloy
Show Answer
Right Answer: B) Tungsten-Rhenium alloy
Explanation: The target/anode of a rotating-anode tube is made of a tungsten-rhenium alloy, which withstands high heat and resists pitting and roughening of the focal track.
Q51. Which is not true about intensifying screen?
- A) Reduces patient dose
- B) Decreases spatial resolution
- C) Reduces blurring
- D) Increases loading of X-ray tube
Show Answer
Right Answer: D) Increases loading of X-ray tube
Explanation: Intensifying screens reduce patient dose and reduce tube loading (less exposure needed), so "increases loading" is false. (Note: option C is also debatable since screens add some blurring.)
Q52. Ideal temperature of the dark room is:
- A) 10-15 degree C
- B) 23-27 degree C
- C) 16-22 degree C
- D) 28-32 degree C
Show Answer
Right Answer: C) 16-22 degree C
Explanation: The recommended darkroom working temperature is about 16-22 degree C (around 20 degree C) for stable film handling and processing.
Q53. The most commonly used photo sensitive agent is:
- A) Silver Chloride
- B) Silver Bromide
- C) Silver Iodide
- D) None of the above
Show Answer
Right Answer: B) Silver Bromide
Explanation: Silver bromide is the principal and most commonly used photosensitive silver halide in radiographic film emulsion.
Q54. The specialised radiological examination of lungs and bronchial tree using an opaque contrast medium is called:
- A) Bronchoscopy
- B) Bronchography
- C) Cystography
- D) Urography
Show Answer
Right Answer: B) Bronchography
Explanation: Bronchography is the contrast study of the trachea, bronchi and bronchial tree using an opaque (radiopaque) contrast medium.
Q55. To decrease the magnification of the heart in PA view of chest the film focal distance is kept at:
- A) 40 inches
- B) 60 inches
- C) 70 inches
- D) 36 inches
Show Answer
Right Answer: C) 70 inches
Explanation: A long focus-film distance (about 72 inches; nearest option 70 inches) reduces magnification of the heart on the PA chest radiograph.
Q56. Radiological examination of salivary glands and its ducts by means of contrast medium is termed as:
- A) Ductography
- B) Sialography
- C) Sinography
- D) Fistulogram
Show Answer
Right Answer: B) Sialography
Explanation: Sialography is the contrast study of the salivary glands and their ducts.
Q57. Stenver projection view is basically done for:
- A) Base of skull
- B) Petrous portion of temporal bone
- C) Oblique view of mandible
- D) Orbit
Show Answer
Right Answer: B) Petrous portion of temporal bone
Explanation: The Stenvers projection demonstrates the petrous portion of the temporal bone, including the petrous pyramid and internal auditory canal.
Q58. Which view of the nasal bone shows bony nasal septum best?
- A) Lateral projection
- B) AP projection
- C) Water's projection
- D) None of the above
Show Answer
Right Answer: C) Water's projection
Explanation: Among the listed options, the Waters' (occipitomental) projection best displays the midline bony nasal septum and the nasal region with least overlap.
Q59. Skyline view is used for:
- A) Talus
- B) Scapula
- C) Patella
- D) Hip joint
Show Answer
Right Answer: C) Patella
Explanation: The skyline (sunrise/tangential) view is used to demonstrate the patella and the patellofemoral joint.
Q60. What position of the elbow best demonstrates the olecranon process?
- A) AP view
- B) True lateral view
- C) Axial view
- D) Oblique view
Show Answer
Right Answer: B) True lateral view
Explanation: A true lateral elbow (flexed about 90 degrees) shows the olecranon process in profile, demonstrating it best.
Q61. The patient's chin should be elevated during chest radiography to:
- A) Avoid superimposition on the apices of lung
- B) Keep mid sagittal plane parallel
- C) Reduce patient motion
- D) Reduce patient dose
Show Answer
Right Answer: A) Avoid superimposition on the apices of lung
Explanation: Elevating the chin keeps the mandible and soft tissues from superimposing on the lung apices, so the apical lung fields are clearly seen.
Q62. The 10 days rule for X-ray examination of female patients is applicable to:
- A) the first 10 days following the cessation of menstruation
- B) the first 10 days following the onset of menstruation
- C) the 10 days preceding the menstruation
- D) 14 days before menstruation
Show Answer
Right Answer: B) the first 10 days following the onset of menstruation
Explanation: The "10-day rule" advises lower-abdomen/pelvic X-rays in women of reproductive age within the first 10 days after the onset of menstruation, to minimise risk to a possible early pregnancy.
Q63. In India which of the following is the most significant in the development of radiation protection standard?
- A) AERB
- B) BARC
- C) NCRP
- D) ICRP
Show Answer
Right Answer: A) AERB
Explanation: In India, the AERB (Atomic Energy Regulatory Board) is the statutory body responsible for radiation protection standards and regulation. (NCRP and ICRP are international bodies.)
Q64. The radiation warning symbol is a black ___ on a yellow background:
- A) Tri foil
- B) Dual foil
- C) Quad foil
- D) Single foil
Show Answer
Right Answer: A) Tri foil
Explanation: The radiation warning symbol is a black trefoil (three-bladed "tri-foil") on a yellow background.
Q65. All of the following are potential advantages of using higher KV in radiography except:
- A) Increased patient exposure
- B) Reduced X-ray tube heating
- C) Shorter exposure time
- D) Decreased area contrast
Show Answer
Right Answer: A) Increased patient exposure
Explanation: Higher kV reduces tube heating, shortens exposure time and lowers contrast - and it reduces (not increases) patient exposure. So "increased patient exposure" is the exception.
Q66. In an adult, the spinal cord usually ends at the level of which vertebra?
- A) S1
- B) L1
- C) L5
- D) S3
Show Answer
Right Answer: B) L1
Explanation: In the adult, the spinal cord (conus medullaris) usually ends at about the level of the L1 vertebra (L1-L2).
Q67. Newton's Inverse Square Law is useful in radiography because it indicates how the radiation intensity is affected by:
- A) Radioactive decay
- B) Distance from the source
- C) The size of the source
- D) None of the above
Show Answer
Right Answer: B) Distance from the source
Explanation: The inverse square law states that radiation intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source.
Q68. Fixing solutions used in Radiography are:
- A) Alkaline
- B) Acidic
- C) Neutral
- D) None of the above
Show Answer
Right Answer: B) Acidic
Explanation: Radiographic fixer solutions are acidic, whereas developer solutions are alkaline.
Q69. One rad is equal to the absorption of:
- A) 1 joules/kg
- B) 0.01 Gy
- C) 100 joules/kg
- D) 0.1 Gy
Show Answer
Right Answer: B) 0.01 Gy
Explanation: One rad equals an absorbed dose of 0.01 gray (100 erg/g = 0.01 J/kg). Therefore 1 Gy = 100 rad.
Q70. The intensity of the X-ray beam that leaves the X-ray tube is not uniform throughout all portions of the beam. This is called:
- A) Heel effect
- B) Thermionic emission
- C) Stray radiation
- D) Tube rating
Show Answer
Right Answer: A) Heel effect
Explanation: The non-uniform intensity across the X-ray beam (greater on the cathode side, less on the anode side) is called the anode heel effect.
Preparation Tips for NCL Radiographer 2026
- Revise core radiography concepts: X-ray production, radiographic positioning, contrast media, radiation protection and equipment.
- Practise previous year and mock questions daily.
- Strengthen General Knowledge, Reasoning and Aptitude for Section B.
- Take timed mock tests to improve speed and accuracy.
Conclusion
Practising the NCL Radiographer Previous Year Question Paper is essential for cracking the 2026 CBT. Keep revising the important radiography topics, solve as many questions as possible, and check the official NCL website (nclcil.in) for the latest exam updates and notifications.
